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PRMIA 8010 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. If the cumulative default probabilities of default for years 1 and 2 for a portfolio of credit risky assets is 5% and 15% respectively, what is the marginal probability of default in year 2 alone?

A) 11.76%
B) 10.53%
C) 10.00%
D) 15.79%

2. Which of the following formulae correctly describes Component VaR. (p refers to the portfolio, and i is the i-th constituent of the portfolio. MVaR means Marginal VaR, and other symbols have their usual meanings.)

A) I
B) II
C) I and II
D) III

3. Which of the following statements are true in relation to Monte Carlo based VaR calculations:
I. Monte Carlo VaR relies upon a full revalution of theportfolio for each simulation II. Monte Carlo VaR relies upon the delta or delta-gamma approximation for valuation III. Monte Carlo VaR can capture a wide range of distributional assumptions for asset returns IV. Monte Carlo VaR is less compute intensive than Historical VaR

A) I, III and IV
B) I and III
C) All of the above
D) II and IV

4. Which of the following best describes a 'break clause ?

A) A break clause gives either party to a transaction the right to terminate the transaction at market price at future date(s)
B) A break clause describes rights and obligations when the derivative contract is broken
C) A break clause sets out the conditions under which the transaction will be terminated upon non-compliance with the ISDA MA
D) A break clausedetermines the process by which amounts due on early termination will be determined

5. Which of the following is a cause ofmodel risk in risk management?

A) Incorrect parameter estimation
B) Misspecification of the model
C) Programming errors
D) All of the above

Solutions: